Iglesia Ni Cristo (Chruch of Christ)
source: Youtube.com
Tuesday, October 23, 2012
Comparing the Doctrines and Beliefs
of the "Iglesia ni Cristo" and "Trinitarian"
Beliefs in God and Jesus Christ
so people may come to see the proof texts and know who is teaching
unbiblical and un-Christian doctrines.
This section "Compare Supporting Verses" is being presented in comparative format, to help refute or disprove the persistent effort of Iglesia ni Cristo detractors who keep on calling the the Iglesia ni Cristo a cult or cult of Christianity with unbiblical and un-Christian doctrines and beliefs, just because Iglesia ni Cristo deny or refuse to believe their so-called "central doctrines of the Christian faith" particularly their belief in the Triune God and the deity of Jesus. By Comparing the Supporting Verses, Iglesia ni Cristo wants people to realize that contrary to what her detractors says, Iglesia ni Cristo teachings are biblical and solidly based on what is written in the Bible. Unbelievable but true, it is her detractors that are teaching unbiblical and un-Christian doctrines because their Trinitarian belief is not explicitly taught in the Holy Bible.
Iglesia ni Cristo does not hide the truth
because her doctrines are not hidden in mystery.
On the contrary, Iglesia ni Cristo wants you to know the truth
because her beliefs are solidly based on the Holy Bible.
Welcome! . . .
Find out who is really teaching the truth written in the Holy Bible.
Study, Examine and Compare the Supporting Verses
| Trinitarian Belief: | Iglesia ni Cristo Belief: | |
Statement of the Trinitarian belief:
| Statement of the Iglesia ni Cristo belief:
| |
| Trinitarians claim that their belief is based on the Holy Bible. | Iglesia ni Cristo claim that their belief is based on the Holy Bible. |
Please take a closer look:
If both beliefs are based on the Holy Bible, why is the Trinitarian belief in God and Jesus Christ completely different from the Iglesia ni Cristo belief?
As clearly shown above,
The Trinitarian and Iglesia ni Cristo beliefs in God and Jesus Christ are conflicting and contradictory. Thus, it is very obvious that there exist a discrepancy in the use of the Bible as a basis of their beliefs.
This section is being developed
to enhance awareness of this apparent discrepancy
so people who are interested in studying the Iglesia ni Cristo belief in comparison with the Trinitarian belief can easily see the reason behind this discrepancy and also to help refute or disprove the persistent claim of Iglesia ni Cristo detractors that Iglesia ni Cristo doctrines and beliefs are unbiblical and un-Christian..
| To enhance awareness of this discrepancy: The scriptural references or supporting verses of these contradictory beliefs will be presented in comparative format (presented side by side) for the following reasons: | ||
| ||
| Apostle's admonition, warning and unique way of teaching: | ||
| ||
| So as not to be misled from the biblical truth, we should therefore follow the Apostle's admonition "not to make personal interpretation" and follow the Apostle's warning "not to go beyond what is written" in the Holy Bible. THEREFORE, we should never believe teachings, doctrines and beliefs based on human wisdom―traditions, creeds and commandments of men, but only believe in the "words given to us by the Spirit", that is teachings, doctrines, and beliefs based and explained by the verses of the Holy Bible. |
Ordinary Man?
Question:
I HEARD THAT the Iglesia ni Cristo teaches that Jesus Christ is not God. Is this true? If Jesus Christ is not God, then who is He? Is He ordinary man?
Answer:
I HEARD THAT the Iglesia ni Cristo teaches that Jesus Christ is not God. Is this true? If Jesus Christ is not God, then who is He? Is He ordinary man?
Answer:
We uphold the biblical truth that the Lord Jesus Christ is not God. He is the Son of God (Mt.3:17 ) but not God the Son as others believe. Christ Himself said that He is man:
“But now you seek to kill me, a man who was told you the truth which I heard from God.” (Jn. 8:40, Revised Standard Version)
This proves that He is not God since God is spirit and has no flesh and bones unlike man (Jn.4:24 ; Lk. 24:39). Moreover, God is not man and man is not God (Hos. 11:9; Ezek. 28:2).
The Church of Christ 2:22 , Easy-to-Read New Testament) endowed by the Almighty God with qualities not found in ordinary man.
The Lord Jesus is the only man who did not sin:
“To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps. ‘He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth’.” (I Pt. 2:21-22, New International Version)
Furthermore, He was exalted by God and commanded to be worshipped for God’s glory:
“Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth, And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Philip. 2:9-11, New King James Version)
Aside from these, God gave Christ all authority in heaven and on earth (Mt. 28:18) and made Him Lord and Savior (Acts 2:36; 5:31) and the only mediator between God and man (I Tim. 2:5).
Thus, we hold the Lord Jesus Christ in high esteem and worship Him for God’s glory in consonance with the teachings of the Father in heaven.
source:PASUGO, December 2000, p.2
Monday, October 22, 2012
Christ is a Man?
Question:
I HAVE BEEN reading your magazine for quite some time through the tireless efforts of my - friend who gives me any issue that she can. I'm in search of the true religion and ever since my first visit to one of your locales, I have begun to seriously research on your doctrines because I find them very different from the other religions I have come across in the past. Your faith enlightens me in a way that I have not felt before. I would like to know how Christ can be man when Matthew 1:18-24 states that the Lord Jesus was created by God through the Holy Spirit.
Answer:
We are glad to hear from you and to learn that our magazine has been of help to you. Regarding your question, let us begin with the declaration of Christ regarding His state of being:
I HAVE BEEN reading your magazine for quite some time through the tireless efforts of my - friend who gives me any issue that she can. I'm in search of the true religion and ever since my first visit to one of your locales, I have begun to seriously research on your doctrines because I find them very different from the other religions I have come across in the past. Your faith enlightens me in a way that I have not felt before. I would like to know how Christ can be man when Matthew 1:18-24 states that the Lord Jesus was created by God through the Holy Spirit.
Answer:
We are glad to hear from you and to learn that our magazine has been of help to you. Regarding your question, let us begin with the declaration of Christ regarding His state of being:
“But now you seek to kill Me, a Man who was told you the truth which I heard from God. Abraham did not do this.” (Jn. 8:40, New King James Version)
Christ said that He is a man. This is equivalent to saying that He is not God because God is not man and man is not God (Hos. 11:9; Ezek. 28:2). The apostles also testified that Jesus Christ is man (Acts 2:22 ; I Tim. 2:5).
What might have confused you is the truth that Christ’s conception is unlike that of an ordinary human being. An ordinary human being is created by God through the sexual union of husband and wife with the collaboration of God who forms a child in the womb of his mother:
“This is what the Lord says-your Redeemer, who formed you in the womb …” (Is. 44:24, New International Version)
Through Christ was formed in Mary’s womb, His conception, however, was not through the natural process of procreation, which is through the sexual union of husband and wife, but through the Holy Spirit:
“This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit.” (Mt. 1:18 , Ibid.)
What was conceived in Mary’s womb was a child and not God, for God is neither man nor the son of man (Num. 23:19 ). Moreover, had Mary conceived God, then there would be two Gods-one who created another and one who was created by another. This is absurd.
The fact that Christ was conceived or was created proves that He is not God since nobody created God. He is the Creator of the universe and everything in it including man (Mal. 2:10 ; I Cor. 8:6).
The fact that Christ was conceived in a manner different from that of ordinary human beings does not prove that He is God. Adam and Eve were also created by God in unique ways. Adam was formed out of the dust of the ground (Gen. 2:7) while Eve was created out of Adam’s rib (Gen. 2:21-23). But we know that Adam and Eve are not gods even though they differ from ordinary human beings in regard to the manner by which God created them. Thus, though Christ was created through the power of the Holy Spirit, He still is man and not God.
source:PASUGO, August 2000, p.2
Iglesia Ni Cristo Church News 10.14.12
Church News Philippines:
Hosted by Sister Diane Triguero
1. 15 Church Dedications in the Month of September -Locale of Toronto Central, Eastern Canada (9.1.12) -Locale of Kent Washington, Pacific Northwest (9.8.12) -Locale of Ancharon, cotobato South (9.7.12) -Locale of Barotac Nuevo, Iloilo South (9.7.12) -Locale of Lisqueb, La Union (9.14.12) -Locale of Nueva Era, Asugan del Sur (9.21.12) -Locale of Bebeladan, Palawan North (9.21.12) -Locale of Tiposu, Pangasinan East (9.21.12) -Locale of Payatas, Metro Manila Central (9.22.12) -Locale of San Alejandro, Nueva Ecija South (9.22.12) -Locale of Libertad, Romblon (9.22.12) -Locale of Mahayahay, Misamis Occidental (9.28.12) -Locale of Pila, Laguna (9.28.12) -Locale of Bataraza, Palawan South (9.29.12) -Locale of Rajal, Pangasinan East (9.29.12)
2. Grand Evangelical Mission: Luna Gymnasium, Luna Apayao
3. Grand Evangelical Mission: Kananga Gym, Leyte
4. Grand Evangelical Mission: Locale of Payatas
5. Study of the Words of God: Brgy. Holy Spirit, Quezon City
6. Tree Planting Activity: Veruela, Agusan del Sur
7. Blood Donation Drive: San Rafael, Bulacan
8. Revisit of Brethren affected by Undoy.
9. INCinema: Zamboanga and Tarlac
FYM Foundation:Lingap Sa Mamamayan
Hosted by Sister Snooky Serna
Lingap Sa Mamamayan assists Consuelo Panganiban who is dealing with a kidney problem and
also sells pan de sol to help with her family problems..
Church News Abroad:
Hosted by Brother Alex Valencia
1. Special Gathering: Edmonton, Western Canada
2. Clean-Up Drive: Coquitlam River Park, Western Canada
3. Teachers Appreciation Day: Honolulu, Hawaii
source: INC1914
John 14:7-11
Question:
I BELIEVE IN your teaching that Christ is man. However, He is also God because He claimed that He was the Father (John 14:7-11). Also, then were times when God became man (Isaiah 42:13; Exodus 15:3).
Answer
I BELIEVE IN your teaching that Christ is man. However, He is also God because He claimed that He was the Father (John 14:7-11). Also, then were times when God became man (Isaiah 42:13; Exodus 15:3).
Answer
The fact that the Lord Jesus Christ is man proves that He is not God. God is not a man nor would He ever want to become one. He Himself declared: "For I am God, and not man" (cf. Hosea 11:9, NKJV). Neither does God change nor vary or have a shadow of turning (cf. Malachi. 3:6; James. 1:17). Thus, God would never change His state of being to become a man because He would never go against His own words (Numbers 23:19).
I will not execute the fierceness of My anger; I will not again destroy Ephraim. For I am God, and not man, The Holy One in your midst; And I will not come with terror. (Hosea 11:9, NKJV)
“For I am the Lord, I do not change; Therefore you are not consumed, O sons of Jacob. (Malachi 3:6, NKJV)
Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shadow of turning. (James 1:17, NKJV)
God is not a man; he will not lie. God is not a human being; his decisions will not change.
If he says he will do something, then he will do it. If he makes a promise, then he will do what he promised. (Numbers 23:19, Easy to Read Version)
If he says he will do something, then he will do it. If he makes a promise, then he will do what he promised. (Numbers 23:19, Easy to Read Version)
The Lord Jesus Christ declared that He is a man (cf. Jn. 8:40). Furthermore, He clarified His distinction from God by saying that God is spirit, without flesh and bones, unlike what He has (cf. Jn. 4:24; Lk. 24:36-39)
But now you seek to kill Me, a Man who has told you the truth which I heard from God. Abraham did not do this. (John 8:40)
God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth.” (John 4:24, NKJV)
Now as they said these things, Jesus Himself stood in the midst of them, and said to them, “Peace to you.” But they were terrified and frightened, and supposed they had seen a spirit. And He said to them, “Why are you troubled? And why do doubts arise in your hearts? Behold My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself. Handle Me and see, for a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see I have.” (Luke 24:36-39, NKJV)
You said that Jesus claims He is the Father in John 14:7-11. These verses, however do not say so:
7 “If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him.” 8 Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.” 9 Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. 11 Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves. (John 14:7-11, NKJV)
It is clear in these verses that Christ did not claim that He is the Father. He simply said, ".... He who has seen me has seen the Father." Why, then, did He say this? We must take note that God, being spirit, cannot be literally seen but is manifested through His eternal power, by the things that He has made (cf. Rom. 1:19-20)
because what may be known of God is manifest in them, for God has shown it to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead, so that they are without excuse, (Romans 1:19-20, NKJV)
On the other hand, Christ is a man attested by God through miracles, wonders, and signs (cf. Acts 2:22). God performed the works through Christ merely as His instrument. This is why Christ said that those who have seen His works are also said to have seen God.
“Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a Man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs which God did through Him in your midst, as you yourselves also know— (Acts 2:22, NKJV)
Moreover, according to Christ Himself, He did not speak His own words but the words of the Father who had sent Him (cf. Jn. 14:24). The works that He did were not His own but that of the Father (cf. Jn.10:37-38). He admitted that by Himself, He could do nothing (cf. Jn. 5:30) which further proves that He is not God.
HHe who does not love Me does not keep My words; and the word which you hear is not Mine but the Father’s who sent Me.(John 14:24, NKJV)
If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me; but if I do, though you do not believe Me, believe the works, that you may know and believe that the Father is in Me, and I in Him.” (John 10:37-38, NKJV)
I can of Myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is righteous, because I do not seek My own will but the will of the Father who sent Me. (John 5:30, NKJV)
You cited Isaiah 42:13 and Exodus 15:3 in claiming that there were times when God became man. Let us quote these verses:
The LORD shall go forth as a mighty man, he shall stir up jealousy like a man of war: he shall cry, yea, roar; he shall prevail against his enemies. (Isaiah 42:13, KJ V)
"The Lord is a man of war: the Lord is his name." (Exodus 15:3, Ibid)
These verses do not mean that God at one time became a man. The expressions "as a mighty man" and "man of war" in these passages were used figuratively, the former a simile and the latter a metaphor, both of which show likeness or analogy. As we have pointed out earlier, God has emphasized that He is "God, and not man"—He would never want Himself to become man.
Isaiah 42:13 is further clarified in this version:
"The Lord shall go forth LIKE a mighty man; He shall stir up his zeal LIKE a man of war. He shall cry out, yes, shout aloud; He shall prevail against His enemies." (NKJV, emphasis ours)
God is not man in nature, as could be gleaned from the preceding verse, but His stirring up of His zeal was likened to a man of war. In the same manner, a war-ship, which is a thing, is also called a man-of-war (cf. Webster's Encyclopedic Unabridged Dictionary of the English Language) but not, of course, in the literal sense a man.
source:PASUGO, February 1998, p.2
"I and My Father are One"
Question:
In John 10:30 Jesus said, "I My Father are one." According to your Church this statement means that Jesus and the Father are one in their work. But if we examine the verse, we can see that Christ's statement "I and My Father are one" ends with a period after the word "one." There is no mention in the verse about being one in their work. If we examine the sentence grammatically in the statement, "I and My Father are one", "are" is a linking verb plural; the phrase "I and the Father" is the subject of the sentence; "I" (the pronoun stated by Jesus) and the noun "Father" are both in the nominative case; the phrase ''are one" is a predicate; and "and" is a connective used to join or connect both Jesus and the Father with equal class or category. Therefore, what Is being referred to in John 10:30 is that Jesus and the Father are one in being Persons of the one God, namely they are God the Father and God the Son.
Furthermore, notice the succeeding verses (John 10:31-36). After Jesus made His statement in John 10:30, the Jews wanted to stone Him and accused Him of blasphemy. When Jesus asked why they wanted to stone Him, they answered because He was a man that was making Himself God. Therefore, they didn't believe He was God because He was a man. So who is the real blasphemer? Jesus who is saying that He is God or the who only believe that Jesus is only a man?
Answer:
It is true, as you observed, that in John 10:30,Christ's statement "I and Father are one" ends with a period after the word "one." Hence, as such, you should have also noticed that the verse does not end with your erroneous and untenable conclusion, ''one in being Persons of the one God."
By examining the preceding verses of John 10:30, it is clear that the topic being discussed by Christ is the work of caring for His sheep. The issue is neither whether nor whether or not He is one of your so-called 'persons' of God. This is what Christ stated:
" I give them eternal life and they will never perish; no one will snatch them from my care. My Father who has given them to me Is greater than all, and no one can snatch them out of the Fathers' care. The Father and I are one." (John 10:28-30, Revised English Bible, emphasis ours)
It is clear that in these verses, Christ was speaking about caring for the sheep entrusted to Him by the Father. Christ cares so much for His sheep that no one will be able to snatch them away from Him. He then states, "no one can snatch them out of the Father's care." Hence, His conclusion," The Father and I are one." Therefore, based on the context of the verse, they are are one neither in being 'God' nor in being 'persons of God' as you claim, but in the purpose and in the work of taking care of Christ's sheep. Thus, George M. Lamsa rendered the verse this way:
"I and my Father are of one accord." (John 10:30, Lamsa)
In this translation, it is clear that the Father and Christ are of one accord or purpose. As far as the context is concerned, they are in agreement when it comes to taking care of the sheep. The verse does not in any way teach that they are one in being God. In fact, John 10:30 was never translated as "I and my Father are one God."
We wonder if there were grammatical rules upon which you can base your mistaken idea that the conjunction "and" is used to connect only subjects of equal class or category. Because if there were such, then what could you say about phrases like, "God and His people," "you and. your pet,'" mice and men," and the like? Here, the conjunction "and" is used to connect subjects of unequal categories, but do you know of a rule in grammar that is violated by such a usage?
The proof that the Father and Christ, though connected by the conjunction "and," in John 10:30, are not equal is in verse 29, which states, "My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all." Hence, the Father is greater than the Lord Jesus Christ and this is supported by Jesus' statement, "The Father is greater than I am" (John 14:28, REB).
Christ Himself also taught that He and the Father are of different nature. He said God is spirit (John 4:24) unlike He who is a man (John 8:40), who has flesh and bones (Luke 24:38-39). Being different in nature, God and Christ therefore are of different and unequal category.
If we examine the succeeding verses of John 10:30, we can notice that the Jews wanted to stone Jesus because they thought He was claiming to be God. But in Jesus' answer to them, He: clearly proved that He was introducing Himself as the "Son of God" and not God Himself:
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods”’? 35 If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (Jn. 10:31-36, New King James Version)
Hence, your conclusion that Jesus and the Father are one in being ''persons" of God is what the Bible doesn't teach in John 10:30. Jesus introduced Himself neither as God nor as "God the Son" but as the "Son of God". Unlike what you believe and advocate, Christ teaches that there is only one true God, the Father in Heaven (John l7:l,3).
Jesus spoke these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You, And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. (John 17:1,3, NKJV)
God and Savior?
Question:
I KNOW THAT every now and then you scan the Holy Bible, but unfortunately you do not understand what the Scriptures mean, like
*Deuteronomy 6:4 where it is stated that Jesus is our one and only true God. You are only referring to your very own verses.
There are other verses clearly stating that Jesus is the one and only true God, such as the following;
*1 Timothy 3:16 clearly shows God was manifested in the flesh. Now, who was manifested in the flesh? Of course, none other than Jesus Christ.There are other verses clearly stating that Jesus is the one and only true God, such as the following;
He considered Himself as a man just to fulfill His promise to save the world from sins. But in Him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily (Colossians 2:9). So He is the God who was manifested in the flesh.
*Titus 2:13 also clearly states that Jesus is our great God and our Savior. What are you looking for? Jesus is our God and our Savior. No one can save us except Jesus Christ.
*Titus 2:13 also clearly states that Jesus is our great God and our Savior. What are you looking for? Jesus is our God and our Savior. No one can save us except Jesus Christ.
*In Matthew 4:7 Jesus revealed himself to be God when He said to Satan ".....you shall not tempt the Lord your God." Did Jesus He to Satan? Absolutely no! Jesus is perfect. See? With these few; verses alone I can assure you and it is clear that Jesus Christ is our God.
Answer:
IT IS NOT TRUE that we only scan the Holy Bible every now and then. We consult it on all matters pertaining to the things of God. And it is not true that we refer to our very own verses. We have none of our own, nay, not even a translation of the Bible.
IT IS NOT TRUE that Deuteronomy 6:4 states that Jesus is our one and only true God. Deuteronomy 6:4 states:
“Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one! (NKJV)
There is no mention here of Jesus. The God of Israel is the God of Jacob and Abraham and Isaac (cf. Exodus 3:6) and the God of Abraham is the Almighty , God (Gen. 17:1).
Moreover He said, “I am the God of your father—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.” And Moses hid his face, for he was afraid to look upon God. (Exodus 3:6, NKJV)
And Moses also said this to the people of Israel:
Is this the way you repay the Lord, you foolish and senseless people? Isn't he your Fatherwho created you? Has he not made you and established you? (Deuteronomy 32:6, NLT)
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, “I am AlmightyGod; walk before Me and be blameless.
This Almighty God is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ (cf. Eph.l:3; 1 Pet.l:3)
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, (Eph. 1:3, NKJV)
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His abundant mercy has begotten us again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, (1 Peter 1:3, NKJV)
Thus, our Lord Jesus Christ is not God Himself. The Father who is introduced to us by our Lord Jesus Himself is the only true God (cf. Jn. 17:1-3). Jesus Christ our Lord is the Son of the one and only true God.
Jesus spoke these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You, And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. (John 17:1,3, NKJV)
__________
IT IS NOT TRUE that just because God was manifested in the flesh as stated in I Timothy 3:16, the flesh in whom He is manifested is God also.
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. (1 Tim. 3:16, KJV)
The same verse in another version of the Bible for clarity:
Here is the great mystery of our religion: Christ came as a human. The spirit proved that he pleased God, and he was seen by angels. Christ was preached to the nations. People in this world put their faith in him, and he was taken up to glory. (1 Tim. 3:16, Contemporary English Version)
God is manifested in the person of our Lord Jesus Christ because it is God Himself who works in Jesus Christ (cf. Jn. 14:10).
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. (John 14:10, NKJV)
Of course Colossians 2:9 states that "in him duelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily" but such statement does not say Christ is God just because the fullness of the God-head dwells in Him. The dwelling does not become the dweller.
_____________
IT IS NOT TRUE that Titus 2:13 states that the terms "our great God and our Savior" refers only to one.
looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, (Titus 2:13, NKJV)
The expression "great God" refers to God the Father and the expression "our Savior" refers to Jesus Christ as it is stated in Titus 1:4.
To Titus, a true son in our common faith: Grace mercy and peace from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Savior. (Titus 1:4, NKJV)
Thus, the Father is different from the Son; God is different from His Son Jesus Christ.
_____________________
IT IS NOT TRUE that Jesus was referring to Himself in Matthew 4:7, when He said "..... you shall not tempt the Lord your God" .
Jesus said to him, “It is written again, ‘You shall not tempt the LORD your God. (Matthew 4:7, NKJV)
The only true God that Jesus recognizes is the Father (Jn. 17:1, 3).
Jesus spoke these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify you. . . . . An this is eternal life, that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you sent. (John 17:1, 3, NKJV)
Thus, the Lord God mentioned by Jesus in Matthew 4:7 is not Himself but His Father, the only true God.
__________________
Note: Verses are added for clarity. Emphasis ours.
Bible Study Suggestion: If you have further questions, please feel free to visit the Iglesia ni Cristo congregation nearest you. A minister or an evangelical worker would be happy to answer any biblical question you have in mind.
source:PASUGO, November-December 1993, p.3
Sunday, October 21, 2012
I Jn 5:20 "the true GOD"
Question:
AS FAR AS what I learned from school is concerned, the English word "the" is a definite article and is used when it is obvious which one is being referred to because there is only one, as in "the sun", "the US President", etc. Now, no less an authority than the Bible teaches that Christ is, to quote it from I John 5:20, "the true God". So, honestly, I find it perplexing and odd to find out from a relative who is a member of your Church that you do not recognize Jesus as God.
Answer:
AS FAR AS what I learned from school is concerned, the English word "the" is a definite article and is used when it is obvious which one is being referred to because there is only one, as in "the sun", "the US President", etc. Now, no less an authority than the Bible teaches that Christ is, to quote it from I John 5:20, "the true God". So, honestly, I find it perplexing and odd to find out from a relative who is a member of your Church that you do not recognize Jesus as God.
Answer:
Without a doubt, we believe that the definite article "the" in the phrase "This is the true God ..." in I John 5:20 definitely teaches that "there is only one" true God, What we don't accept however, for it is surely an error, is the conclusion that the verse refers to Christ as "the true God." Let us quote the verse in its entirety
"And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us an understanding, that we may know Him who is true; and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life." (1 John 5:20, New King James Version, emphasis ours)
Notice that the first part of the verse states, "the Son of God has come". This shows that the God being referred to in the verse has a Son and it is the Son who has come. Now, if Christ were "the only true God" being referred to in the verse, then who would be Christ's Son who has come? Absurd, isn't it? Therefore, what's really perplexing and odd is if we say that Christ is 'the true God" being referred to in the verse. Clearly Christ is distinct from God, for He is the Son of God, and as such, He could not be "the only true God".
Reading through I John 5:20 carefully, we find that one of the reasons the Son Jesus Christ came into the world is to give us an understanding as to who the true God is. It is this true God to whom the pronouns "Him" and "His" in the verse ("that they may know Him who is true"; "we are in Him who is true": "in His Son Jesus Christ") refer to: the one and only true God who would be made known by His Son, Jesus Christ.
Indeed, Christ fulfilled this mission. So, whom did He introduce as "the only true God"? The following is the account of Apostle John, the same apostle who wrote I John 5:20:
"After Jesus had finished speaking to his disciples, he looked up toward heaven and prayed: Father, the time has come for you to bring glory to your Son, in order that he may bring glory to you.
"Eternal life is to know you, the only true God, and to know Jesus Christ, the one you sent. (John 1 7:1, 3, Contemporary English Version)
Christ clearly taught that the true God is the Father, not He Himself. Take note that Christ used the pronoun "you" (referring to the Father) and not "me". Christ even distinguished Himself from the Father by referring to Himself as the one sent by the Fatter.
Thus, by adhering to the truth that Christ is not the Father, and, therefore, not God, we only take Christ's word as clearly and plainly as He Himself put it.
source:GOD'S MESSAGE, September 2008, p.4
Christ became God after ascension?
Question:
WE, AS TRUE CHRISTIANS, accept and believe in the verses of the Bible that you quote stating that Christ is man. However, it is very significant that the context and background of those verses be considered. In John 8:40, when Christ introduced Himself as man. He was still on earth. There is no question about that. What we are saying is that Christ became God or attained His divinity when He reached heaven.
Answer:
Answer:
Nowhere in the Bibie is it taught that Christ became God or attained divinity upon His ascension to heaven. On the contrary, the apostles testify that Jesus remained to be man in nature even when He reached heaven. In verses such as I Timothy 2:5 and Acts 2:22, among others for instance, the apostles directly declared that Christ is man.
For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, (1 Tim. 2:5, NKJV)
“Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a Man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs which God did through Him in your midst, as you yourselves also know— (Acts 2:22, NKJV)
Considering the background and context of these verses, we've learned that these were taught by the apostles when our Lord Jesus was already in heaven. If it were true that Christ attained divinity when He ascended to heaven, then the Apostles should have taught Him as God when they preached about Him. But the apostles were consistent in their teaching. that Christ is indeed man, before and even after His ascension to heaven.
Apostle Paul, in fact, teaches that in heaven, Christ sits at the right hand of God (Col. 3:1). And the Bible ascertains that the one who sits at the right hand of God, who is Christ, is a man, and therefore not another God:
"But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God" (Heb. 10:12, New King James Version, emphasis ours)
The teaching that Christ became God when He reached heaven contradicts what the Holy Scriptures teaches concerning the true Cod. Christ Himself makes it clear that there is only one true God who is the Father (Jn. 17:1, 3). Before His ascension to heaven, Christ even said:
..... I am ascending to My Father and your Father and to My God and your God." (John 20:17, NKJV) If Christ became God upon His ascension to heaven, then there would be two Gods—the Father to whom Christ ascended (and whom Christ recognizes as His God) and Christ who ascended to His Father. This is definitely against what Christ Himself teaches regarding the true God.
While it is true that the Savior's body, which was once perishable and mortal on earth, became imperishable or immortal in heaven (1 Cor. 15:50-54), this does not mean that He became God. Because if He did, then those to be saved would also become gods, for the Holy Scriptures confirm that their bodies will be like the glorious body of Christ:
"But our citizenship is in heaven. And we eagerly await a Savior from there, the Lord Jesus Christ, who, by the power that enables him to bring everything under his control, will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious body. (Phil. 3:20-21, New International Version)
The belief or teaching that Christ became God upon ascension to heaven is therefore unbiblical
For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, (1 Tim. 2:5, NKJV)
“Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a Man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs which God did through Him in your midst, as you yourselves also know— (Acts 2:22, NKJV)
Considering the background and context of these verses, we've learned that these were taught by the apostles when our Lord Jesus was already in heaven. If it were true that Christ attained divinity when He ascended to heaven, then the Apostles should have taught Him as God when they preached about Him. But the apostles were consistent in their teaching. that Christ is indeed man, before and even after His ascension to heaven.
Apostle Paul, in fact, teaches that in heaven, Christ sits at the right hand of God (Col. 3:1). And the Bible ascertains that the one who sits at the right hand of God, who is Christ, is a man, and therefore not another God:
"But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God" (Heb. 10:12, New King James Version, emphasis ours)
The teaching that Christ became God when He reached heaven contradicts what the Holy Scriptures teaches concerning the true Cod. Christ Himself makes it clear that there is only one true God who is the Father (Jn. 17:1, 3). Before His ascension to heaven, Christ even said:
..... I am ascending to My Father and your Father and to My God and your God." (John 20:17, NKJV) If Christ became God upon His ascension to heaven, then there would be two Gods—the Father to whom Christ ascended (and whom Christ recognizes as His God) and Christ who ascended to His Father. This is definitely against what Christ Himself teaches regarding the true God.
While it is true that the Savior's body, which was once perishable and mortal on earth, became imperishable or immortal in heaven (1 Cor. 15:50-54), this does not mean that He became God. Because if He did, then those to be saved would also become gods, for the Holy Scriptures confirm that their bodies will be like the glorious body of Christ:
"But our citizenship is in heaven. And we eagerly await a Savior from there, the Lord Jesus Christ, who, by the power that enables him to bring everything under his control, will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious body. (Phil. 3:20-21, New International Version)
The belief or teaching that Christ became God upon ascension to heaven is therefore unbiblical
source: GOD'S MESSAGE, June 2004, p.4
Jesus the Creator?
Question:
IT IS COMMON knowledge in religious parlance that one of the essential characteristics of being God is being the Creator of all things. No less than the Bible itself proves that Jesus Christ created the world and we can read that in Colossians 1:16. So how can you reconcile your teaching that Christ is not God and the fact that He created all things?
Answer: Colossians 1 :16 states, thus:
For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him." (New King James Versiom)
Perhaps, what makes you think that the verse teaches that "Christ created the world" is the part which states "by Him all things were created." Notice nevertheless that just before that statement, the Bible states, "He (Christ) is the firstborn over all creation" (Col. 1:15, Ibid.)—which clearly indicates that Christ is one of those which were created and therefore not Himself the Creator.
The Bible unequivocally informs us who the one and only Creator is. Isaiah 44:24 records thus:
"Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer, And He who formed you from the womb: "I am the Lord, who makes all things, Who stretches out the heavens all alone, Who spreads abroad the earth by Myself". (Ibid.)
The "Lord" and "Redeemer" who made everything "all alone" and "by Himself was further identified by the prophet Isaiah:
"Doubtless You are our Father ...You, 0 Lord^ are our Father; Our Redeemer from Everlasting is Your name" (Isa. 63:16, Ibid.)
Hence, as the prophet Malachi rhetorically asks, "Have we not all one Father? Has not one God created us?" (Malachi 2:10, Ibid.) Clearly therefore, the one God who "created the world" as taught by the Bible is not Christ, but His Father who is the only true God (John 17:1, 3).
So, why then does Colossians 1:16 state that by Him (Christ) all things were created"? That very verse itself provides the answer—the last part of it explains, "All things were created through Him (Christ)." Remember that one of the meanings of the term "by" is the word "through," and thus the two are synonyms (Microsoft Encarta 2006 Dictionary Tools). But then again, in what sense "were all things created through Christ"? The explanation is again found in that very same verse which continues, "AI! things were created through Him and for Him." That all things were created for Jesus is further explained by Apostle Raul who himself wrote Colossians 1:16. He pronounced:
"God did what he had purposed, and made known to us the secret plan he had already decided to complete by means of Christ. This plan, which God will complete when the time is right, is to bring all creation together, everything in heaven and on earth, with Christ as head. All things are done according to God's plan and decision . . . . . based on what he had decided from the very beginning" (Eph. 1:9-l 1, Today's English Version)
Notice that "from the very beginning" it had been the "secret plan" of Cod that when the time is right "He will "bring all creation together, everything in heaven and on earthy with Christ as head." It is in this sense thus that God created everything for Jesus.
It is clear therefore that all things, were created "by Christ" not in the sense that He is Himself the Creator, but in the sense that all were created by the Father through and for Him (Christ). Hence, in other translations of the Bible such as the Today's English Version , Colossians 1:16 is rendered in this manner:
"For through him God created everything in heaven and on earth. . . ., God created the whole universe through him and for him." (emphasis ours)
Answer: Colossians 1 :16 states, thus:
For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him." (New King James Versiom)
Perhaps, what makes you think that the verse teaches that "Christ created the world" is the part which states "by Him all things were created." Notice nevertheless that just before that statement, the Bible states, "He (Christ) is the firstborn over all creation" (Col. 1:15, Ibid.)—which clearly indicates that Christ is one of those which were created and therefore not Himself the Creator.
The Bible unequivocally informs us who the one and only Creator is. Isaiah 44:24 records thus:
"Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer, And He who formed you from the womb: "I am the Lord, who makes all things, Who stretches out the heavens all alone, Who spreads abroad the earth by Myself". (Ibid.)
The "Lord" and "Redeemer" who made everything "all alone" and "by Himself was further identified by the prophet Isaiah:
"Doubtless You are our Father ...You, 0 Lord^ are our Father; Our Redeemer from Everlasting is Your name" (Isa. 63:16, Ibid.)
Hence, as the prophet Malachi rhetorically asks, "Have we not all one Father? Has not one God created us?" (Malachi 2:10, Ibid.) Clearly therefore, the one God who "created the world" as taught by the Bible is not Christ, but His Father who is the only true God (John 17:1, 3).
So, why then does Colossians 1:16 state that by Him (Christ) all things were created"? That very verse itself provides the answer—the last part of it explains, "All things were created through Him (Christ)." Remember that one of the meanings of the term "by" is the word "through," and thus the two are synonyms (Microsoft Encarta 2006 Dictionary Tools). But then again, in what sense "were all things created through Christ"? The explanation is again found in that very same verse which continues, "AI! things were created through Him and for Him." That all things were created for Jesus is further explained by Apostle Raul who himself wrote Colossians 1:16. He pronounced:
"God did what he had purposed, and made known to us the secret plan he had already decided to complete by means of Christ. This plan, which God will complete when the time is right, is to bring all creation together, everything in heaven and on earth, with Christ as head. All things are done according to God's plan and decision . . . . . based on what he had decided from the very beginning" (Eph. 1:9-l 1, Today's English Version)
Notice that "from the very beginning" it had been the "secret plan" of Cod that when the time is right "He will "bring all creation together, everything in heaven and on earthy with Christ as head." It is in this sense thus that God created everything for Jesus.
It is clear therefore that all things, were created "by Christ" not in the sense that He is Himself the Creator, but in the sense that all were created by the Father through and for Him (Christ). Hence, in other translations of the Bible such as the Today's English Version , Colossians 1:16 is rendered in this manner:
"For through him God created everything in heaven and on earth. . . ., God created the whole universe through him and for him." (emphasis ours)
source: GOD'S MESSAGE, July 2008, p.4
Why worship Jesus Christ if He is not GOD?
Question:
MAY I ASK if Felix Y. Manalo had a teaching that Christ should be worshiped? If he had, what are the biblical basis of this teaching?
Answer:
Brother Felix Y. Manalo did not have his own teaching. As God's messenger, he strictly upheld and taught to the Church the pristine teachings of God written in the Holy Scriptures (II Tim. 3:15-17)
Among the teachings of the Bible that he preached concerns the worship of Jesus Christ, not because Christ is God but because it is God's commandment that at the name of Jesus "every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those earth ... to the glory of the Father" (Phil. 2:10-11, New King James Version).
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth, and [that] every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ [is] Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (Philippians 2:10-11 NKJV)
far above all principality and power and might and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this age but also in that which is to come. And He put all [things] under His feet, and gave Him [to be] head over all [things] to the church, (Ephesians 1:21-22, NKJV)
That Christ is not God, although men are commanded to worship Him, is further proven by the biblical teaching that He will eventually subject all His power and authority to the Father who is the only true God:
"For the scripture says, 'God put all things under his feet'. It is clear, of course, that the words 'all things' do not include God himself, who puts all things under Christ. But when all things have been placed under Christ's rule, then he himself, the Son, will place himself under God, who placed all things under him: and God will rule completely overall." (I Cor. 1 5:27-28, Today's English Version}
Bible Versions
Question:
Are you not being subjective and arbitrary by choosing the version the suits your beliefs? Why the need to use different versions?
Answer:
Using only one Bible versions in both written and oral discourse seems practical and expedient. This should not pose any problem if and when those who translated the Bible in various languages are completely free of bias or are theologically neutral. Unfortunately, they are not. And this has resulted not only in differences in shades of meaning in some portions or the verse, but also in differences in interpretation of the entire passage.
"All translations involves interpretation. Interpretation, of course, involves the influence of theology; and as all translation involves interpretation, so all translations involves theology. ...Translators cannot avoid totally the necessity of making the interpretative decisions, nor can they avoid completely the influence of personal views of truth on their work. Translation is hermeneutically neutral and translators are not theologically neutral."
For these reasons, there are times when it is necessary to choose the version that is not only easier to comprehend, but most of all renders precise meaning- thus,the need to use more than one version of the Bible.
How do we determine which particular version of the Bible to use? Apostle Paul taught the guiding principle when it comes to the teachings written in the Holy Scriptures:
"But God has revealed them to us through His Spirit. For the Spirit searches all things, yes, the deep things from God.
"These things we also speak, not in words which man's wisdom teaches but which the Holy Spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual" (I Cor. 2:10,13,NKJV).
Spiritual truths must be compared with spiritual truths, and in doing so, there must be no contradictions. Hence, if a term or phrase in a particular version contradicts the true doctrine, then there is an error in translation. Therefore, it behooves us to use a version that does not contradict the biblical truth.
However, an important thing must be understood when it comes to comparing spiritual truths with spiritual truths.A preacher of the gospel must be sent duly commissioned by God for him to receive the Holy Spirit and be able to correctly compare spiritual truths from spiritual things. Hence, not everyone can rightfully explain the contents of the Bible.. Apostle Paul said, "And how shall they preached unless they are sent?..." (Rom 10:15,Ibid).
John the Baptist also taught the importance of being sent by God:
"The one whom God has sent speaks God's words, because God gives him the the fullness of his Spirit."(Jn 3:34, TEV)
God gave the knowledge of His words only to His messengers.. They are the ones entrusted with the ministry and the message of reconciliation (II Cor. 5:18-20), and thus they are the ones who can rightfully teach the contents of the Holy Scriptures. People should listen to their preaching to be able to know and understand the will of God expressed in His Holy Book.
source: God's Message, June 2004,p. 3-4
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